Chile could be eliminated by FIFA due some trivial dispute over a relegated team... Ireland was eliminated by a handball goal, what should FIFA do?
Good old FIFA, mountains out of molehills, and vice versa.
Well, FIFA never will eliminate France as France is commercial far more attractive than Chile. It is not fair, but FIFA is not fair.
Non consistency is not new at FIFA. In 1934 they punished Romania for fielding an ineligible player (Gyula (or Iuliu) Baratky) in a qualifier against Switzerland (2-2). As Baratky played less than three years before for Hungary he was not eligible to play for Romania. FIFA changed tge match result against Switzerland in a 2-0 win for the Swiss. According to the rule at the time a player had to wait 3 years before chaging national team, Italy fielded in ithe 1934 World Cup qualifier and all its 1934 World Cup matches ineligible players (Luis Monti and Enrico Guaita) as well. Everyone knew at the time, including FIFA. But the Italians were not punished. Please can anyone tell me the logica of punishing Romania but not punishing Italy for the very same foul even concerning the very same tournament?
At least we learn one lesson which reminds me on the old Dutch saying
range">misdaad loont, which means something like
range">crime will be rewarded. FIFA says they are promoting fair play, but I think the promote foul play. There may be more examples of worldchampions who won the Cup by cheating, but Italy 1934 is the most absurd example, also becuase according to match reports they constantly have been supported by the refs.
So who are the real 1934 Worldchampions as it is obvious Italy is not. Is it Czechoslovakia? Austria? Spain? Strong sides that have not been beaten by Italy (I rather say an improved Italian XI) but by the referee.